Hi Mic,
Do you mean that the value distribution is not as described in the F1 help?
Please check the example in F1 help:
At the time of valuation, the sales order has the following values:
| Line IDs | Plan | Actual | ||
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Revenues | 3000 | 1200 | ||
| Material | 1000 | 300 | ||
| Internal | 500 | 100 | ||
| Overhead | 500 | 100 | ||
| Total | 2000 | 500 |
The following values are calculated from this data:
| Calculated values | |
|---|---|
| Calculated revenue | 1200 |
| Cost of sales | 800 |
| Reserve | 300 |
Apportionment of the reserve (300) according to the difference between plan and actual (method of apportionment = D)
The value of the reserve is multiplied by the difference between the planned and actual costs for each line ID that is divided by the difference between the planned and actual costs of all line IDs.
Reserve for each line ID = (Planned cost of line ID - Actual cost of line ID) * Value of reserve / (Total planned costs - Total actual costs)
| Line IDs | Reserve | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Material | 140 | (1000 - 300) / (2000 - 500) * 300 |
| Internal | 80 | (500 - 100) / (2000 - 500) * 300 |
| Overhead | 80 | (500 - 100) / (2000 - 500) * 300 |
| If the Redistribution indicator is set to A, the reserve portion for the line IDs for which plan minus actual is less than zero is set to zero. The reserve is only distributed to the line IDs for which plan minus actual is positive. | ||
Apportionment of the reserve (300) according to the revenue-based cost of goods manufactured (method of apportionment = O)
| Line IDs | Reserve | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Material | 100 | (1200 / 3000 * 1000) - 300 |
| Internal | 100 | (1200 / 3000 * 500) - 100 |
| Overhead | 100 | (1200 / 3000 * 500) - 100 |
BR,
Owen